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“Don’t
you think that when Owner sold the land, that terminated the offer in the
writing that they both signed as a result of no consideration, and therefore
living the Buyer nothing to accept on April 21?. “
Is actually wrong
understanding of law: b/c buyer was not aware of the deal, he was not informed
and was not there, whatever happed b/w seller and alternative buyer for 120K
had nothing to do with being effective revocation as for the original buyer.
On other hand, if it was reasonable to consider offers #1 and 2 revoked by time
lapsed, then there was no K and hence it was nothing to compensate original
buyer for. Do not you see that? distracter " for whatever
reason court found for buyer” is to confuse you, Courts find for
reasons, not just because it would be nice to give money to buyer who has no K
rights.
(that is the problem: revocation needs to be
communicated: as there is no valid offer w/o communication , by the same token,
there is no valid revocation w/o communication to offeree who has power of
acceptance, not revoked by lapse of time or death of offeror.)
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Why it is MBE difficult
question, consider this:
Offer#1 I give you offer to
buy my house, b/c it C/L, no UCC exceptions, my offer if revocable at
will, prior any time you accept it.
So forget about second sentence
dealing with option. Do you agree that if I send you my acceptance prior to
your effective revocation we have a K.? If you do not agree review K
formation and revocation.
Ok, in absence of selling
your house, would we have a K, once you received my acceptance. Look: offer,
acceptance, consideration, SFO satisfied: valid K.
What if you sold the house
prior to receiving my acceptance, could you really do it. Yes, you could, but
w/o communication of your revocation first to offeree, you risk of receiving my
acceptance next day, which would form K and by not having Re to sell, you would
be liable for breach because I did not know about your revocation. I had power
of acceptance and I exercise it. You are bound; b/c forgot or neglected to
inform me, before I tendered my acceptance. There is no defenses in K
formation. If you do not have offered and accepted item, it is your
problem to pay for the breach.
Now, Offer # 2 was to make
offer #1 30-irrevocable on receipt of $100. But offer #1 was independent,
seller had right to revoke offer #1 at any time either before getting
acceptance of the option (offer#2) or acceptance of offer #1 for sale of house.
But that right of
revocation was exercisable by proper means of communicating to the offeree. Breached
happened once seller received valid acceptance. The fact that seller had
nothing to sell is irrelevant to formation of valid K.
The value of the house is
on April 21 would be determined by FMV which could be estimated by value one
day earlier on April 20, date of sale. In alternative court can look at
the date when original buyer is ready willing and able to close escrow, and can
take that date as FMV, which cold be even more then 120K, ( the rational as
buyer tending full price is condition precedent for seller to tender marketable
title and sellers obligation does not mature until that conditioned is
satisfied. In either, case If FMV > K price, buyer gets BOB, the differences
b/w FMV and K, i.e. what answer D is actually nicely states.
If there was no K, none of
the answers is correct, b/c if no K -there is no remedy, nothing to
compensate. If there is K, remedies are either reliance, to put back
buyer as if no K was ever executed, or expectation -Benefit of Bargain. None of
answer is a compensation for reliance. And if there is breach buyer is
entitled to BOB, not mere reliance.
All in all, first step to
find valid K formation date first, breach date to answer correctly
“Assume, that for
whatever reason court found for buyer” is red hearing -distracter to
prevent you from look for K formation.