| Sub: contract remedy question |
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Author: belandrei [300]
04 Jul 2009 12:08 AM
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Owner’s
breach:
Remedy depends what and when happened, (if house
burned b/c risk was on owner, he “breached,”
if new building, risk is with builder, if house burned down, builder has
to rebuild or maybe even pay owner for “ cost of cover” to rebuild with other
builder, to put the owner in the position if no breach.
Consider this.
1.
Before Performance –executory K: builder gets Builder's lost profits.
2.
After Full Performance, K or Q-K is fully executed:
a)
Action for the
K Price (if actual enforceable at law K)
or b) restitution in Quasi -K
for value of services conferred, to prevent
unjust enrichment (not limited to K price), (i) innocent builder ( by mistake
took -wrong address ) came to the property of owner and fixed something while
owner stood and watch not saying anything. Owner has to pay for the benefit
confirmed on him even if no actual K, either oral or written, (quantum meruit in this situation or any other if K failed at law--also know as impled-in fact.
3. After
Partial Performance; K price minus cost of completion to builder ,
i.e., K price minus what builder
actually saved by not finishing the job b/c he was kicked out by owner)
Or restitution in equity: or MBE favorite subject matter
is destroyed
Park
owned a very old structure with electrical system in the building was very old.
Park hired Elise Electrician to do the work for a flat price of $10,000 due
upon completion of the whole electrical job. Elise made a substantial beginning
of the rewiring job when the area experienced an unexpected earthquake. Due to
the age of the building, it collapsed. At
the time, Elise had completed half the electrical job, which increased the
value of the building by
$4,000, but had expended
$6,000 in costs. If Park
Place refuses to pay and Elise brings suit, the
likely recovery is:
Nothing since the contractor completing the
job was a condition precedent to payment.
(wrong b/c electrician did not assume risk of
collapse)
$4,000
in restitution to avoid Park Place's
unjust enrichment. (is right answer)
$5,000 since she had completed half the work.
(
$6,000 since Elise is entitled to be
reimbursed her out-of-pocket costs. ( wrong b/c equitable measure is benefit to owner not detriment to
electrician)
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Author: cabarpasser [19]
04 Jul 2009 04:42 AM
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Hi, guys: thank you very much. As you said: "either there is NO VALID CONTRACT or THE SIDE seeking QUANTUM MERUIT is the BREACHING PARTY", quantum meruit shall apply. However, from belandrei's reply (the post above yours), a nonbreaching party may also seek quantum meruit when the subject matter is destroyed. Is this an exception? Please correct me if I am wrong. In an opposite case, if the builder is the breaching party, what will the builder get? Since builder is the breaching party, he is able to seek quantum meruit, that is the value of benefit he conferred to the owner, right? Does it matter how much he has completed the project (5% or 99%), a minor breach or material breach? If the magnitude of breach is considered, it looks like quantum meruit is not the right answer. I really don't know much about the remedy due to the lack of systematic legal education in the U.S. Thank you very much for your help.
Posted By on 04 Jul 2009 01:44 AM A party may sue on the contract if the OTHER SIDE is in BREACH. [the suit is in law]
Quantum Meruit is an EQUITABLE REMEDY Either there is NO VALID CONTRACT or THE SIDE seeking QUANTUM MERUIT is the BREACHING PARTY. Thus:
Before construct work is done -- the builder has no cost therefore he only gets his profit on the contract.
During contruction: The builder gets the contract price minus the money saved by not completing the K [mitigation] -- also don't forget to mention the money he can make by selling off materials.
Completed contruction: The builder gets the entire contract price. There can be no mitigation.
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Author: cabarpasser [19]
04 Jul 2009 03:37 PM
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Jimmy: Thanks a lot! Sorry that I cost you so much time.
After reading your post, I come up several questions.
1. IMPOSSIBILITY & FULLY PERFORMANCE: As you said, if it is impossible to perform the contract, we should treat the K as invalid/unenforceable, then we look to equitable remedies. What if builder (a foreign construction company) has completed the whole project but the owner is not able to pay because of change of law that forbids a person to pay a foreign company? Is the builder entiled to full contract price because of full performance? Or either restitution (cost) or relaince (benefit bestow -obvious, builder has bestow benefit to owner)? Or nothing because owner's duty is discharged by impossibility?
2. RESTITUTION AND RELIANCE: I am still not very clear when to apply restitution and when to apply reliance. This issue especially confused me when I read belandrei's post. Under subtitle 3, she gave an example. In the example, although the cost was $6,000, the electrician only got $4,000 which is the FMV of the benefit conferred. Why not 6000? She said because equitable measure is benefit to owner not detriment to electrician. She put this example under "restitution in equity". I am confused when the remedy is cost when is benefit?
3. EXPECTATION DAMAGES & SUBSTANTIAL PERFORMANCE: Is expection damages available if builder has performed 99% ? Considering he is the breaching party and also the contract is not FULLY performed, it looks like he should not get expectation. But my notes say "when the breach is minor, the owner's remedy is an award of damages sufficient to compensate for defective performance, and the breaching party is entitled to get K price with setoff for breach". So is this right that FULLY performance is not a necessary condition for getting expectation damage. |
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Author: belandrei [300]
04 Jul 2009 06:37 PM
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Unlike UCC which can require perfect
tender, under CL there is only requirement for substantial performance.
I know
it is sounds circular, but: if there is material breach, there is no
substantial performance. And if there was substantial performance there is no
material breach, b/c a party substantially performed and should be treated as if K
was performed, while, aggrieved party still can subtract his loss incurred due
to that immaterial breach. (there is merely minor, not material breach).
If substantial performance, non breacher has to pay
full K price, but is allowed to decrease his payment by damages caused by other
party breach,
In context of construction, K price 100K, house is 90 %, builder
walks away just because, owner needs to pay 100K minus cost of complete: adjusted K is due b/c there
substantial performance, owner needs to mitigate by hiring different builder,
and is allowed get credit for that: coneseq and incident damages associated
with that breach.
Now if builder built only 20%-no
subst perfomance, builder breached and cannot recover under K, builder lost all
rights under K, but it would be still unfair to let owner to have 20 % of the
house for free so builder still can get recovery under cost of complete
formula: K price -minus cost to complete: 100K -80K=20K, but if owner could
only find somebody for 100K (more expensive, only available guy), breached
builder would get nothing,
That is philosophy of remedies under
K. If there is one K, no Q-K applied.
Now forget about above builder who had K, now we do not have a K.
Now, Q-K: compare it to promissory
estoppel; both require that there is no enforceable K.
Usually when P conferred benefit on
D and there is unjust enrichment if D were allowed to retain. Justice
requires to get the benefit back to P-the rule (it does not require P be
compensated for his expenses, it requires disgorgement of profit, gain,
appreciation gained by D).
Now forget above above,
Now there is yet another remedy for K situations its is not Q-K but measure of recovery is the same as above. This called restitution and recover is not
limited to the K price or to what P actually expended. Which is answers you
question, if P spent 6K, i.e., more then D gain 4K (like in the
collapsed house example-just too bad, still P only
gets 4K, just a rule, I know, sound unfair. But on upside, it could have been
electrician spent 4K, and benefit to owner was 6 K, electrician would get 6K)
Main thing is to keep these remedies
separate:
1) Compensatory damages (Benefit of
the bargain)\
2) Reliance (if MOULS K, K fails b/c
of SOF, or promissory estoppel) measured by out-of pocket costs to P -----> and that answers your question above
3) Rescission,
4) Reformation and
5) Restitution (VALID K which was not completed) recovery by benefit to D
6) Q-K ) no valid K , i.e., is implied-in- lawK -recovery in quantum meruit (infant
bought thing form merchant, doctor provided service where it was reasonable to
expect payment, innocent builder repaired thing for owner who was aware of
happening) . As restitution the recovery can be less and more then K price. FMV
of doctor average in community is 150/hour, but that particular doc actually
charges 200/ hour, Doctor will get his rate, not community.
Another example would be if builder breached
in the middle, he cannot ask court to get him recovery under K, he is breacher,
but he can get credit for what he actually conferred on owner, so if owner
counterclaims for his damages, builder will pay those damages minus his credit
measure by benefit on owner.
Do not mix reliance
(which allows recovery out of pocket expenses-- 6K promissory estoppel or failed SOF K) with restitution
which would allow all benefit conferred on D -4K to be disgorged back to other side.
Another source of confusion:
see difference b/w
Quasi-contracts are-implied-in-law
contracts:
- Plaintiff furnished / rendered valuable
goods / services to Defendant with a reasonable expectation of being
compensated;
- Defendant knowingly accepted the benefits
of the goods / services; and
- Defendant would be unfairly benefited by
the services / receiving the goods if no compensation were paid to the
Plaintiff
-
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A contract which is implied in law is an obligation that is not
created by a contract but that is imposed by law to prevent the unjust
enrichment of one party from the acts of another. A contract which is implied
in law is also called a quasi-contract, because it is not in fact
a contract; rather, it is a means for the courts to remedy situations in which
one party would be unjustly enriched were he or she not required to compensate
the other. For example, an unconscious patient treated by a doctor at the scene
of an accident has not agreed (either expressly or by implication) to pay the
doctor for emergency services, but the patient would be unjustly enriched by
the doctor's services were the patient not required to compensate the doctor.
.A contract which is implied in fact is one in which the
circumstances imply that parties have reached an agreement even though they
have not done so expressly. For example, by going to a doctor for a physical, a
patient agrees that he will pay a fair price for the service. If he refuses to
pay after being examined, he has breached a contract implied in fact.
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Author: belandrei [300]
05 Jul 2009 01:31 AM
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Jimmy, I think you got a little bit confused and confusing, looking in your above 2 posts,
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Jimmy wrote "I didn't
stress my reliance is in addition to what was stated earlier. Reliance as
stated earlier.. may also be measured by the increase in worth of something on
open market
Example... house is worth 100 thous. Additional room adds 10 thousand in
appraised value... then Reliance is 10-thousand."
The above statement is wrong
The reliance interest focuses
on the injured party, is backward-looking in the sense that it strives to put her in the
position that she would have been in had she not made the contract in the first place. It
does so by reimbursing her for the loss caused by her reliance on the contract. 10-thousand in our example is expectation measure or compensatory
damages, aka benefit of the bargain. (see my post before with list of remedies)
The vocabulary matters:
The reliance interest also
focuses on the injured party, but is backward-looking in the sense that it strives
to put her in the position that she would have been in had she not made the
contract in the first place. It
does so by reimbursing her for the loss caused by her
reliance on the contract.
The restitution
interest, on the other hand, focuses on the breaching party. It is
backward-looking in that it aims to put the breaching party in a position
similar to the one she would have been in had no contract been made.
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Author: cabarpasser [19]
05 Jul 2009 05:14 AM
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belandrei: I agree with you. I think you are right that the reliance is the out of pocket cost and restitution is benefit conferred. BUT, I don't quite understand one example in your last post: "Now if builder built only 20%-no subst perfomance, builder breached and cannot recover under K, builder lost all rights under K, but it would be still unfair to let owner to have 20 % of the house for free so builder still can get recovery under cost of complete formula: K price -minus cost to complete: 100K -80K=20K". IS THIS FORMULA A KIND OF RESTITUTION (there is valid K and it's incomplete)? Why don't we use this formula in the $4,000 case, if we know the cost to complete? What's the distinction in those two cases?
Change facts. In the middle of the way, came situation of legal impossibility that the owner could not pay, builder requested assurance and failed. Builder stopped working. He only finished 30% of the job. What the builder can get? The cost of complete formula or restitution?
Also, would you mind answering the first question in my last post regaring impossibility and fully performance? The question is regarding a valid and enforceable contract at the beginning but it becomes unenforceable in the middle. What if in the middle of the performance, one party's duty of performance is discharged by impossibility while the other party has already fully performed? 1. do you think the other party who has not performed need to pay? Can he raise the defense of impossibility and evade the payment? 2. Can the performed party get full K price b/c he has fully performed? (He did not breach the K, so he should be entitled to the K price. Am I right?) 3. restitution (I feel it should not be restitution. But I cannot explain why. Just because he has fully performed?).
Let's forget my above questions. Generally speaking, when you say restitution need a valid K, is a K that becomes unenforceable in the middle a "valid K"? (I guess yes from your $4000 example). When talking about reliance, what is "MOULS K"?
After reading your posts, I summarize the expectation damages as follows. Let me know if I am wrong. 1. expectation damages only available when there is a valid K. 2. expectation damages only available to nonbreaching party (exception see 3) . 3. the breaching party never get expectation damages unless he has fully/substantially performed and the breach is minor.
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Author: belandrei [300]
05 Jul 2009 06:52 PM
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THIS FORMULA A KIND
OF RESTITUTION (there is valid K and it's incomplete)? Why don't we
use this formula in the $4,000 case, if we know the cost to complete? What's
the distinction in those two cases?
B/c in K it matters whose fault it is. Breaching party
is treated unequally compare to a party with no fault. (Interestingly, by the
same token, under UCC if you breached K even if breached unrelated to the loss
–you bear the risk of loss if K is silent on this you sent not 100% conforming
goods, goods lost, you are liable b/c you breached by sending wrong staff).
If you are wrongdoer and willfully breached K your
equity is less compare to one’s who played by the rules. It does not mean that
you lost all right, justice still requires that even breacher was given
something, but it does not require to make you whole. I.e., does not require
restitute status quo for breacher. After al,l b/w breacher and non breacher
they are not in pari delicto, so it is fair to show some preference to
nonbreacher even at the expense of breacher.
If builder walked away -he breached he is at fault, his “compensation
equity” is at minimum. If building collapsed, and nobody is at fault, just old
piece of junk, nobody assumed risk, it is fair to give builder benefit he
conferred on owner, b/c b/w them they are equally innocent, and law has
simple rule (I did not make the rule): builder must be compensate by
amount owner was benefitted. (you can argue 50% 50 split would be more fair,
but it is just not the rule)
Change facts. In the middle of the way, came situation
of legal impossibility that the owner could not pay, builder requested
assurance and failed. Builder stopped working. He only finished 30% of the job.
What the builder can get? The cost of complete formula or restitution?
Performance of contractual duties (other than a contractual duty to pay money) can
be excused under impossibility or impracticability or frustration of purpose.
situation of legal impossibility that the owner
could not pay" is not legal impossibility. hence, Owner
breached, builder gets BOB -complete cost or restitution which ever is
more fair: if disgorgment yields more money to builder should get that, b/c he
is innocent.
If builder
materially breached he does not get restitution (but.... modern court
would consider see below).
Restitution is not per se K
remedy it is rather equitable remedy not relying on K principles but rather
relying on fairness.
So if one side breached,
other can choose to rescind the K and sue for restitution.
Usually non breaching party
is suing for restitution. Why? b/c non-breacher can recovery for value
conferred which can be more then K price. (Loosing K): builder
hired architect to make plans -10K is price of K . A drew plans at 90% of
completion showed to builder, builder refused to pay, even nothing wrong
with plans, made to specs. A can get not just 10K, but say 12 K : if A
can show that he actually underpriced himself and real price FMV for drawing is
12K.
K breached by
plaintiff: typically only P will sue for restitution b/c defendant breached K.
But some courts would allow breaching plaintiff to sue for restitution,
but cap the max to K price less damages incurred as result of the
breach.
Builder breached in the
middle, O refused to pay anything at all. Modern court would allow Builder to
get paid for the value of services up to K price less reasonable amount
owner had to expand to hire new builder.
Also, would you mind answering the first question
in my last post regarding impossibility and fully performance? The
question is regarding a valid and enforceable contract at the beginning but it
becomes unenforceable in the middle. What if in the middle of the performance,
one party's duty of performance is discharged by impossibility while the other
party has already fully performed?
If we had valid K can a duty to perform can be discharged? Yes by: Impossibility,
FP, Subsequent Agreement, Impracticability
Performance
of contractual duties (other
than a
contractual duty to pay money) can be excused under
impossibility or impracticability or frustration of purpose.
Possible
differences between impossibility and impracticability include (i) former is
objective/latter subjective; (ii) former means can't be done while latter means
can only be done with EXTREME and UNREASONABLE difficulty and expense. Bar
questions are more likely to focus on whether there is any basis for excusing
performance than on whether that basis should be called impossibility or
impracticability.
Impossibility is one of excuses which can discharge
contractual obligation -->There is no K
any more and, party who spent time, efforts, money will have remedy in Q-K for the work done.
(But you need to make sure that a destruction is not fault if a party.
(to factor in whether a party is at fault (voluntary disablement-owner burned
down his house to get insurance), party assumed risk (builder to drill well,
there is rocks under, will cost 10x more then agreed K price, builder assumed
risk b/c he is professional), unique subject matter is gone. etc )
P contracts to
paint O's house for $1,000. After P begins painting, the house burns down. Is P
excused from performing on this contract so that P is now free to take another
painting jobs YES, Is O excused from performing, i.e., paying Yes
contracts to
build a house for O for $100,000. After B begins work, the house burns down. Is
B excused from performing on this contract so that B is now free to take
another construction job? No b/c SM IS HOUSE to be built , just more money
but possible
[Seller's risk
of loss and destruction]. A contracts to sell B his 1973 Cadillac for
$700. After the contract but before the risk of loss has passed to B,
Cadillac is destroyed in an unseasonable flood. When A fails to
perform the contract (fails to deliver the Cadillac) B sues A for breach
of contract, is A’s nonperformance excused? But b/c it was unique is excused
b/c impossibility
[Seller's risk
of loss and destruction—different answer]. A contracts to sell B 100 sacks
of apples for $300. After the contract but before the risk of loss has
passed to B, A's fruit is destroyed by an unseasonable
flood. Not excuse b/c A can buy and sell elsewhere not
unique
K breached by builder:
option1: (passive owner) Owner can rescind K and owes nothing. In theory
guys can walk different ways, builder breached, owner rescind K, meaning K never
existed, everybody is happy. But then, of course, builder, comes back and sues
to get money in Q-K for value conferred. But then owner, of course, compulsory
counterclaims for cost of completion. Court calculates the difference allowing
builder to get a credit against owner’s claim. Justice is served. easy
option2: (active, litigious
oner) Owner can sue first for standard remedy w/o rescinding K: K price
–cost of completion minus money not yet paid to builder.
"MOULS
K"? is an acronym to help remember all types of
Ks requiring writing per S. of fraud”
Marriage
, >One year services (cannot not be
performed w/i), , Usury( guaranty), sale
of Land, Sale of >$500, you can make your one, but
I thought this one was pretty common.
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Author: cabarpasser [19]
06 Jul 2009 04:41 AM
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Belandrei: One more question. It looks like your last reply contradicts your first post. In your last reply, you said: "If builder walked away -he breached he is at fault, his “compensation equity” is at minimum. If building collapsed, and nobody is at fault, just old piece of junk, nobody assumed risk, it is fair to give builder benefit he conferred on owner". However, in my orginal question, I mean, my first post on this topic, I was asking what remedy the builder can get if OWNER breaches. So, builder is at no fault. In your first reply, you wrote:"3. After Partial Performance; K price minus cost of completion to builder , i.e., K price minus what builder actually saved by not finishing the job b/c he was kicked out by owner)". Here, you were also talking about non-breaching builder's remedy, but you used the cost of completion formula but not the value of benefit conferred.
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Author: belandrei [300]
06 Jul 2009 07:12 PM
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CONSTRUCTION KS
<!--[if !supportLists]-->A. <!--[endif]-->Builder's Remedies, owner
is in breach :
<!--[if !supportLists]-->1. <!--[endif]-->Before Performance: Builder's lost profits.
<!--[if !supportLists]-->2. <!--[endif]-->After Full Performance: Action for the Price of K or
restitution in Quasi K for value of services.
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quasi-contract (builder/owner never signed or agreed on K, owner was not aware of work being done***)is is a legal fiction used to
avoid injustice and provide a remedy in situations of unjust enrichment. It is based on equitable principles and is not
really a contract at all. In some cases, courts will allow a plaintiff in a
quasi-contract action to recover the market value of his services even if they
do not directly benefit the defendant, as long as they were done with the
expectation of being compensated or they benefit a third party at the request of defendant
note** if owner knew about work-->different theory-->implied-in-fact. <!--[if gte mso 9]>
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3. <!--[endif]-->After Partial Performance: K price -cost of completion (to builder).
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Builder contracted with Owner to construct a house on property owned by
the latter for a contract price of $100,000.
Assume for purposes of this question only that Owner committed a total
breach of the contract at a time when Builder had already incurred costs of
part performance of $30,000, and Builder would have to spend an additional
$60,000 to finish the job. Builder is entitled to recovery in the amount of:
(A) $10,000.
(B) $30,000.
(C) $40,000.
(D) $60,000
(C) Builder is entitled to his profit plus costs. Where an owner
breaches a construction contract after construction has been started but before
construction is completed, the builder is entitled to recover any profit he
would have derived
from the contract plus any costs he has incurred to the date of the
breach. Here, Builder's profit
would have been $10,000 and his costs up to the time of the breach are $30,000.
Thus, he can recover $40,000. Another way of saying this is contract price
minus the cost of completion. Here, the contract price was $100,000 and the
cost of completion was $60,000. Thus, Builder is entitled to $40,000.
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